Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away, Mark 13:31. The theory behind modern bibles assumes that the actual individual words first recorded in scripture cannot be verified and that they are probably altered through time. If that is so, why did Jesus say "words" in the plural? He didn't say, my word shall not pass away in the general sense that his word is the message itself. He said "my words".
Isaiah made that even more clear. As for me, this is my covenant with them, saith the LORD; My spirit that is upon thee, and my words which I have put in thy mouth, shall not depart out of thy mouth, nor out of the mouth of thy seed, nor out of the mouth of thy seed's seed, saith the LORD, from henceforth and for ever, Isaiah 59:21. Clearly, God intended to preserve the individual words that he spoke to Isaiah and that Isaiah recorded. Those words are on the earth somewhere. Jesus promised.
Can a translation of those words be as accurate as the original? Before I answer that I want to reason with my readers. When a man buys a Toyota vehicle, does he feel a need to study Japanese in order to understand how to read the maintenance manual? I have met many mechanics who were proficient in up keeping and maintaining Toyotas and none of them ever felt that the English instructions he was reading were in any way inadequate, or that he had to learn to read Japanese in order to really understand the vehicle in front of him.
Those same men however sit in churches where some half wit instructs them that they can never really understand their Bibles until they learn Greek. If the Japanese can render their technical information in English well enough to allow American rednecks to tear their engines apart and rebuild them, why should anyone doubt that the Holy Ghost can render the Bible in any language he chooses in such a fashion that a man can know God?
The process by which he does that is called "interpretation". The ability to interpret one tongue into another is a gift of the Holy Ghost. And he took the damsel by the hand, and said unto her, Talitha cumi; which is, being interpreted, Damsel, I say unto thee, arise, Matthew 5:21. Jesus spoke to her in Aramaic. The Holy Ghost allowed Matthew to remember exactly what Jesus said, but he did not leave it up to Matthew to translate as he saw fit. He gave him the official Holy Ghost interpretation.
Anyone familiar with the translation process can tell you that there can be much leeway in translating. If a person doubts that just buy 150 English translations of the scripture. Certain things will get said 150 different ways. God doesn't bother with how men want to translate when he renders something said in the Old Testament and says it in the New Testament. He always gives the interpretation; Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us, Matthew 1:23.
God doesn't really care how you think that should be translated. By his authority, he has told you his interpretation. The King James Bible is the Holy Ghost's interpretation of the Word of God in the English language. All other English translations since then have been the idiotic floundering of half baked academics trying to pose as spiritual people. As the scriptures say, to another the interpretation of tongues, I Corinthians 12:10. As long as men speak in different tongues on this earth and as long as God wants to communicate with them, he will give the gift of the interpretation of tongues to men. God interpreted the Word of God into English in 1611 and he hasn't changes his mind since.